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Pharmacology: General Pharmacology; Pharmacokinetics

Pharmaceutics: Pharm. Engineering (Unit Operations)

Jurisprudence: Different Acts, Year and their Main Objectives

Q1. Following mixture(s) is/are of the irreversible nature: (d) None

(a) Positive mixtures (b)Negative mixtures

of component liquids of a mixture based on

Q2. Saturated solution left behind the process of (a) Molecular weight difference

crystallizations called (b) Density difference

(a) Final solution (b) Daughter liquor (c) Volume difference

Q3. Following is the same for all crystals of the same Q9. Following is not true for an azeotropic mixture:

material (a) Volatility of each component becomes equal

(a) Sizes of the faces of crystal (b) Relative volatility of mixture is 1

(b) Size of the edge of the crystals (c) Components of such mixture cannot be fractionated

(d) All

Q10. Following is most widely used for extraction of

Q4. Swenson Walker crystallizer is a type of volatile oils

(a) Scrapped surface crystallizer (a) Steam distillation

(b) Agitated batch crytallizer (b) Azeotropic distillation

(d) Evaporator crystallizer (d) Destructive distillation

Q5. Chose a method to achieve supersaturation for a Q11. Fixed oils can be extracted using

substance whose solubility is independent of temperature (a) Vacuum still (b) Molecular still

(substance with flat solubility) (c) Water still (d)Fractional distillation

(a) Cooling (b) Evaporation

is reduced to

Q6. Following uses the evaporation technique to achieve (a) EMC (equilibrium moisture content)

supersaturatoin: (b) Zero moisture

(a) Circulation magma crystallizer (c) CFMC (critical free moisture content)

(b) Sternson–Walker crystallizer (d) None

(d) All Q13. Ideally the drying should be done to a level of

(a) EMC (b) CMC

Q7. McCabe and Thiele method represents (c) CFMC (d) Zero moisture content

(a) Graphical method for determining the number of

theoretical plates of a fractionating column Q14. Gelsication is the term used for

(b) Graphical relation between vapour pressure and (a) Freeze drying (b) Turbo drying

temperature of component liquids of a mixture (c) Vacuum drying (d) Rotary drying

fraction of component of a mixture Q15. Freeze drying works on the principle of

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(a) Evaporation of water Q27. Total 100 squares in a 1 inch2 area is termed

(b) Sublimation of water from ice phase to gas phase (a) 100 mesh sieve (b) 10 mesh sieve

(d) Heating at the freezing temperature of water

Q28. Following is not a filter aid:

Q16. Dewar flasks are used in (a) Diatomite (b) Carbon

(a) Vacuum drying (b) Microwave drying (c) Gelatin (d) Asbestos

Q29. Filter aids may be applied by

Q17. The most efficient heat exchange between the (a) Precoating technique

particles and flowing air occurs in the (b) Body-mix technique

(a) Tray dryer (c) Both

(b) Spray dryer (d) None

(d) Rotary dryer Q30. Integrity tests are intended for following filters:

(a) Leaf filters (b) Drum filters

Q18. Following light is mostly used in radiant heat dryer: (c) Membrane filters (d) Edge filters

(a) Radio waves (b) Sunlight

of filtration is

Q19. Reynold’s number (Re) for streamline flow of a fluid (a) Darcy’s equation (b) Dalton’s equation

is (c) Stokes’ equation (d) None

(a) <0.2 (b) >0.2

of liquids the membrane pore size is

Q20. Following is not the mechanism of size reduction (a) 0.2μm (b) 0.45μm

(a) Impact and attrition (c) 0.8μm (d) 1.2μm

(b) Cutting

(d) Elutriation (a) Crystallization (b) Distillation

Q21. In dry milling the moisture content should be

(a) <2% (b) <4% Q34. Filters function by the following mechanism(s)

(b) Entrapment or impaction

Q22. For effective operation of ball mill the ball charge (% (c) Electrostatic attraction

volume of mill filled by the balls) should be (d) All

(a) 60–70% (b) 30–50%

of the product

Q23. Critical speed of the ball mill is the speed at which (a) Doesn’t exceed 1%

(a) Balls begin to centrifuge with the mill (b) Doesn’t exceed 10%

(b) Balls cascade over one another (c) Doesn’t exceed 5%

(d) Balls start tumbling

Q36. Hammer mill works by following principle:

Q24. Rouwolfia and Glycirriza can be size reduced the best (a) Impact (b) Attrition

way by of (c) Compression (d) None

(a) Roller mill (b) Ball mill

requirements for comminuting process.

Q25. Select a mill for a low melting drug. (a) Rittinger’s law (b) Kick’s law

(a) Hammer mill (b) Roller mill (c) Bond’s law (d) All

Q38. Following are dimensionless number(s)

Q26. According to IP/BP very fine powder is one of which (a) Reynold’s number

(a) All particles pass through 120# sieve (b) Power number

(b) 90% particles pass through 350# sieve (c) Mass transfer number

(d) 90% particles are of size <10μm

Q39. Sweet land filter is a modified type of

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(a) Leaf filter (b) Edge filter (c) Apparent volume of distribution (VD) and desired

(d) Area under the plasma drug concentration versus time

Q40. One of the following mills works on both the curve (AUC)

principles of interparticulate attrition and impact

(a) Cutter mill Q49. Following is not true for pKa of a drug

(b) Hammer mill (a) pH at which half of the molecules of solute in solution

(d) Fluid energy mill (b) It is determined using Handerson-Hasselbatch equation

Half life of drug may be useful to determine (d) At pH above this the solute exists in ionized forms

(a) Dosage schedule of the drug

(b) Level of absorption

(d) Time to get the steady state has

the highest solubility of drug

Q42. Phase II reactions of a drug biotransformation (a) Amorphous (b) Metastable

(a) Decreases its water solubility (c) Stable (d) Hydrated

(b) Includes activity of cytochrome P-450

(d) Lead to inactivation of drug which of the following part in our body?

Q43. Drug X has a constant bioavailability and first-order (a) Stomach (b) Intestine

elimination its maintenance dose rate will be directly (c) Colon (d) Entire length of GIT

proportional to

(a) Plasma protein binding Q52. Higher absorption of drug through small intestine is

(b) Volume of distribution due to

(d) Total body clearance (c) Microvilli (d) None of above

Q44. The applicability of Noyes-Whitney equation is to Q53. Drug disposition include

describe the (a) Drug absorption and distribution

(a) First-order kinetics (b) Drug absorption and metabolism

(b) Zero-order kinetics (c) Drug distribution, metabolism and excretion

(d) Dissolution rate

Q54. Which of the following process is responsible for

loss of drug irreversible

Q45. The normal creatinine clearance value in humans

(a) Elimination (b) Distribution

is______ ml/min. (c) Both a and b (d) None of above

(a) 100–105

(b) 80–90

(d) 120–130 to promote crossing the BBB by drug?

(a) Use of permeation enhancers such as DMSO

Q46. If the pKa of phenobarbitone is 3.4, what fraction of (b) Osmotic disruption of BBB by mannitol

drug would be ionized at pH 4.4? (c) Use of dihydropyridine redox system

(a) 0.01 (b) 0.5 (d) All of above

Q56. Which of the following junctions is responsible for

Q47. The biological half-life of procaine in a patient was low

35 min and its Vd was estimated to be 60 litres. distribution of drug to cerebrospinal from blood

The total clearance rate of procaine is (a) Choroidal cell junction

(a) 1.18 litres/min (b) Glial cell junction

(b) 0.115 litres/min (c) Basement cell junction

d) 5.57 litres/min

Q57. Which of the following barrier is responsible for

transfer

Q48. The loading dose (DL) of a drug is usually based on of nutrients from mother to foetus?

the (a) Simple cell membrane barrier

(a) Total body clearance (CL) of the drug (b) Blood–brain barrier

(b) Percentage of drug bound to plasma protein

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(d) Blood–cerebrospinal fluid barrier (a) Metastable > stable > amorphous

(b) Stable > amorphous > metastable

Q58. Innulin is used as a marker for measurement of (c) Amorphous > metastable > stable

(a) Plasma (b) ECF (d) Amorphous > stable > metastable

Q68. Which of following are not characteristics of

Q59. Unit of apparent volume of distribution is facilitated diffusion?

(a) Litre (b) Litre/Kg (a) Carrier-mediated transport

(d) Nonsaturable

Q60. Which of the following binding site is not available

in HSA?

Q69. The main mechanism of most drug absorption in GI

(a) Azapropazane/Warfarin

tract is:

(b) Diazepam

(a) Active transport (carrier-mediated diffusion)

(b) Filtration

(d) Phenytoin

(d) Passive diffusion (lipid diffusion)

Q61. Which one of the following plasma protein has high

affinity for binding with drug?

(a) HSA (b) α1-acid glycoprotein Q70. Which of the following mechanisms of drug

(a) Passive diffusion (b) Pore diffusion

Q62. Larger dose of digoxin requirement to infants as (c) Carrier mediated (d) None of above

compared to young age patient is due to

(a) Greater protein binding of drug Q71. Micronization of hydrophobic drug decrease

(b) Large renal clearance of drug solubility of drug This is because

(d) None of above (b) Particles reaggregate to form larger particle

Q63. Which one of the following process is responsible (d) All of above

for higher half-life of drug?

(a) Drug absorption (b) Excretion Q72. Which of the following polymorphic form of drug

(a) Amorphous (b) Metastable

Q64. The term bioavailability refers to the (c) Stable (d) Hydrated

(a) Relationship between the physical and the chemical

properties of a drug and the systemic absorption of drug.

Q73. Following statements are true:

(b) Measurement of the rate and extent of [P] An epidermic means simple application of medicament

therapeutically active drug that reaches the systemic on the skin

circulation [Q] An epidermic means application of medicament by

rubbing

(d) Dissolution of a drug in the GIT.

[R] Iontophoresis means application of medicament to and

pushing it through skin to reach the blood vessels by

Q65. If a drug has very small volume of distribution (Vd)

electric transmission

it [S] Inunction means simple application of medicament on

is likely that this drug the skin

(a) Has a short biological life.

(a) P and Q (b) Q and R

(b) Does not accumulate in various and organs

(d) Will not be effective

Q74. Following statements are true for intradermal route:

[P] The drug is injected under skin

Q66. Absolute bioavailability is denoted by [Q] This route is used for testing sensitivity to drug like

(a) [AUC]oral/[AUC]i.v. penicillin

(b) [AUC]test/[AUC]std [R] The drug is given within the skin layer

(d) AUC]test.Dstd/ [AUC]std. Dtest glucose

(a) P and R (b) Q and R

Q67. The order of dissolution of different dosage forms of

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Q75. MgSO4 exerts their various effects through Q83. Most common Phase-II reaction is

following route are true: (a) Sulfate conjugation:

[P] It produces purgative effect if given orally (b) Glucuronide conjugation

[Q] It produces depressant effect if given parenterally (c) α amino acid conjugation

[R] It does not produce any effect if given parenterally (d) Methylation

[S] It increases intracranial tension if given enema

(a) P and Q (b) R and S Q84. Pick out the appropriate alimentary route of

administration when passage of drugs through liver is

Q76. Following statements are true for passive diffusion: minimized:

[P] It is saturable a) Oral b) intraperitonial

[Q] It is nonselective c) Rectal d) Intraduodenal

[R] It is energy dependent

[S] It is energy independent Q 85. Generic name is accepted by

(a) P and R (b) Q and R a) USAN b) NDA

Q77. Following statement are true for facilitated diffusion:

[P] It is unsaturable Q 86. Clinically Buprenorphine is used in:

[Q] It is Non selective a) Alcohal addition b) Surgical anesthesia

[R] It is energy dependent c) Opoid addiction d) Analgesic

[S] It is energy independent

(a) P and R (b) Q and R Q 87. Which drugs is favored in sublingual route:

Q78. Transport diffusion is proportional to concentration c) Desaminooxytocin d) All

gradient in

[P] Active transport Q 88. Pick out the parenteral route of medicinal agent

[Q] Facilitated diffusion administration:

[R] Passive diffusion a) Rectal b) Oral

[S] Ion pair transport c) Sublingual d) Inhalation

(a) P and R (b) Q and R

Q 89. Correct statements listing characteristics of a

Q79. Following drug have more than 99% protein-binding particular route of drug administration include all of the

capacity following EXCEPT:

[P] Digoxin [Q] Aspirin a) Intravenous administration provides a rapid response

[R] Thyroxine [S] Warfarin b) Intramuscular administration requires a sterile technique

(a) P and Q (b) P and R c) Inhalation provides slow access to the general

circulation

Q80. Following drug have less than 50% protein-binding d) Subcutaneous administration may cause local irritation

capacity

[P] Insulin Q 90 if a patient gene has slow acetylation (hepatic N-

[Q] Aminoglycoside antibiotic acetyltransferase), the required dose of the INH should be:

[R] Diazepam a) Increased b) Decreased

[S] Aspirin c)Unchanged d) none

(a) P and Q (b) Q and R

Q 91. What does the term “bioequivalence” mean?

Q81. Spironolactone is a prodrug and its active metabolite a) Plasma protein binding degree of substance

is b) Similar bioavailability of a same drug preparation

(a) Desmethyl spironolactone from different company.

(b) Canrencne c) Similar bioavailability of a different drug preparation

from same company.

(d) None of the above

d) Fraction of an uncharged drug reaching the systemic

Q82. Most of the drug is absorbed through circulation following any route administration

(a) Active transport (b) Facilitated diffusion

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Q 92. The reasons determing bioavailability are:

a) Rheological parameters of blood Q 101. If the patient is suffering from renal failure then

b)Amount of a substance obtained orally and quantity of loading dose of acidic drug should be:

intakes a) Reduced b) Increased c) Unchanged

c)Extent of absorption and hepatic first-pass effect

d) Glomerular filtration rate Q 102. Half life (t ½) doesn’t depend on:
a) Biotransformation

Q 93. For the better therapeutic effect 50 mg of a drug b) Time of drug absorption

should be present in the blood, and it has 25% of c) Concentration of a drug in plasma

bioavailability than what should be oral dose. d) Rate of drug elimination

a) 50 mg b) 100 mg
c) 200 mg d) 12.5 mg Q 103. Which drugs is secreted in saliva
a) Digitalis b) Lithium

Q 94. if drug pKa is 3 and pH media is 7 then c) Nitroglycerine d) all

a) 99.9 % drug is ionized
b) 99.99 % drug is ionized Q 104. Systemic clearance (CLs) is related with:
c) 99% drug is ionized a) Only the concentration of substances in plasma
e) 90% drug is ionized b) Only the elimination rate constant
c) Volume of distribution, half life and elimination rate

Q 95. if drug pKa is 5 then it is better absorbed in pH….. constant

media d) Bioavailability and half life

a) 1 b) 3 c) 5 d) 8

Q 105. Redistribution occurs when:

Q 96. The drug is affected by first pass metabolism “except” a) Drug has high water solubility

a) Opoids b) Ametryptiline b) Drug has low Vd
c) Propranolol d) Rebeprazole c) Drug has high Ko/w partition coefficient
d) Drug has high protein binding

Q 97. if the 6000 ug of drug given to the patient and his

plasma drug concentration is 0.2 mg/ml, then Vd is: Q106. Rule of Drug and Cosmetic Act is regulate in

a) 0.03L b) 30 L a) 1948 b) 1940 c) 1945 d) 1950
c) 30000 L d) 300 L

Q107. The Patent Act is regulate in

a) 1984 b) 1970 c) 1955 d) 1966

Q 98. Pick out the right statement:

a) Microsomal oxidation always results in inactivation of a

Q108. Major objectives of Factories Act are

compound

a) Protection against long hours working
b) Microsomal oxidation results in a decrease of compound
b) Precaution and Safety assessment

toxicity

c) Prevention of accident on machine
c) Microsomal oxidation results in an increase of
d) All

ionization and water solubility of a drug

d) Microsomal oxidation results in an increase of lipid

Q 109. The drugs are eliminated by zero order kinetic

solubility of a drug thus its excretion from the organism is

“EXCEPT”

facilitated

a) Phenytoin b) Tolbutamide
c) Theophyllin d) Propranolol

Q 99. In the plasma vit K is bind with

a) Albumin

Q110. if a diabetic patient was treated with a oral

b) Celuroplasmin (alfa-2 globuline)

hypoglycemic agent like tolbutamide daily. And he was

c) Transcortin (alfa-1 globuline)

taken a Aspirin for headache then what is happened ??.

d) alfa acid glycoprotein.
a) Prominent hypoglycemia

Q 100. In case of liver disorders accompanied by a decline

b) Reduce therapeutic effect of tolbutamide.

in microsomal enzyme activity the duration of action of c) Reduce the elimination rate of tolbutamide.

some drugs is: d) Increase the duration of action of tolbutamide.

a) Decreased b) Increased
c) Remained unchanged d) Changed insignificantly

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